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The Second Amendment isn't murky. It simply doesn't state what the Kehoskies of the world would have it to state.
My post there is not license to ignore history or the opinions of some very smart guys in our history who happened to get in there first. It's a brief against sacramentalizing human artifacts, instruments, institutions and expressions--making some things holy or sacred is simply a way of changing what the debate should be about. So that you win as a matter of course. It's loading the dice. My post is specifically an argument against taking with certainty an instrument to be and to mean what it was never meant to be--you simply can't know enough to take this line. There's a difference between being open to being informed by predecessors and being bound to their interpretation--assuming you can know that definitively, and you can't
There are two factors about the US murder rate. Overall it's mostly high everywhere. But the populous states tend to be about at the same level. The rural states are the variants, with the Deep South states being really high, and the northern rural state being really low. The worst of the Deep South states have at least 5 times the murders of the northern rural states. Strange.
If the right to keep and bear arms was ambiguous or open to interpretation, there would have been a few localities that would have moved to restrict or ban the private possession of firearms back in 1792 or 1800 or 1810, in the years after the allegedly ambiguous Second Amendment was ratified. That this didn't happen is very strong evidence that gun ownership was, without a doubt, understood to be an individual right.
So, now, what's constitutional is what's understood as happening extra-constitutionally at the time of the constitution only? Is that the only way to decide what's constitutional--no longer by what is said in the constitution?
Get thee to a nunnery, Kehoskie.
This makes no sense with regard to the individual right inherent in the Second Amendment. However, I would like to hear more about this idea that it's unconstitutional for the government to require citizens to purchase specific things.
As for Sammy's link re: wage stagnation, it's incredible to see the same people who argue for amnesty and clamor for even more low- and semi-skilled immigration complain about wage stagnation. (And it borders on comical that the word "immigration" didn't appear a single time in the sea of words Zonk posted in #1187, #1189, and #1191.)
hmmm...
http://www.disastercenter.com/crime/kycrime.htm
1965 : 5.3 murder per 100k
1970 : 11.1 murder per 100k
http://www.disastercenter.com/crime/tncrime.htm
1965 : 5.9 murder per 100k
1974 : 13.4 murder per 100k
Yikes
though by 2011 it was down to 3.5 according to this. but Tennesse still 5.8
Obama wins reelection with 51 percent and we're told there's a consensus in support of his positions. Private gun ownership remained legal in 100 percent of the early United States for generations, and we're supposed to believe it was a legislative anomaly. Funny stuff, Morty.
Like I said: there may be a individual rights aspect to the 2nd, but the militia act seem to suggest that the same folks also believed there was a strong collectivist aspect, aka that one of the main reason for the weapons to be kept was to raise militia for common defense organized mostly by the state.
HOWEVER, since nowadays there is pretty much no such thing as a state drafted militia, (national guards being professional, while the guys claiming to be militia are largely unregulated by any authority.) which begs the question then if half of the 2nd Amendment is basically not happening, why should the other half not be open to question as well? or why should we not advocate for the full restoration of it's application in earnest ?
If we want what is probably closer to a full interpetation of the early 2nd amendment, as I have argued several times, the Swiss model would be the closest thing to that in modern times.
A. everyone can own guns.
B. all adults must report for military / public service / training of some sort for a period and be subject to recalls when needed.
C. no unregulated militia, no black panthers, no crazy hillbilly nuts calling them self constitutional militia while often plotting overthrow of the government. They either need to register and follow the rules, or disband, or face the consequences.
Can you read? Read the Second Amendment. Does that sound like a blanket endorsement of an absolute right? You may think there should be, or even that there is, an absolute right, but it is not in the constitution, if verbal expression means anything. And if it doesn't in this case, then why not in other cases--let's just admit the words don't mean anything. And then, again, you're still stuck with the problem of what does justify such an interpretation? How do you then interpret the meaning of the constitution as to other provisions?
You just can't be honest. You just want your way no matter how you get it.
Many if not most of the Founding Fathers were highly skeptical of a standing army. The subsequent creation and existence of the U.S.'s standing army not only doesn't argue against Second Amendment rights, but bolsters the argument for Second Amendment rights.
I sense Morty is inching closer to another of his classic breakdowns.
Anyway, Morty, I'm not going to keep going in circles with you. If you're such a Second Amendment scholar, you should have submitted an amicus brief in Heller or McDonald instead of hanging out here pretending to be a Founding Father.
(By the way, Wyatt Earp and Bill Hickok were born 59 and 48 years, respectively, after the Constitution was drafted, so you might want to stop using them as examples.)
***
Putting aside that much of the above is incorrect — people need guns for self-defense as much or more now than they did in 1789 — if that's what anti-gun people believe, then they should work to amend the Constitution rather than engaging in linguistic and legalistic flimflammery.
You getting faster at hitting bottom. Just call me a drunk and vacate the premises.
It's not flimflammery of any sort to point out that you won't read and can't think.
Most (like nearly all) of them were skeptical of a standing army that is correct, yet we have one today, shouldn't purest 2nd amendment folks argue for the dissolution of the US army and be replaced by drafted militia? the navy is constitutional, while the air force was obviously not for seen at that point so let's lump it in with the Navy for now, but the US army is obviously completely against the vision of the founding fathers, anyone can see that. so why aren't the pro-gun folks arguing for it's dissolution and a return to the draft?
Since I haven't heard any pro-gun groups argue for that, then why argue for the sanctity of an amendment that your conveniently overlooking half of?
LOL. Is that how things work now? I know lefties like when judges just try to add or subtract from the Constitution on a whim, but that's really not how things are supposed to work in a constitutional republic.
***
Even if you're right from a purely philosophical standpoint, none of the above has anything to do with the Second Amendment as written. The Second Amendment has no trigger clause in the event a standing army is formed, or in the event Second Amendment supporters change their minds about the existence of a professional military.
But I'm Mad Now!
Correction: You (apparently) do not want a gun for self-defense.
That's how things have always worked, troglodyte. Evolve!
Ah, now all of a sudden, we leave what's happening around the time, and just concentrate on what the second amendment doesn't have. And what it doesn't have has meaning how?
Really? Supreme Court jokes aside, a few people have gotten together and simply decided that Constitutional amendments were "obsolete or no longer viable" without bothering to amend the Constitution? That's really not "how things have always worked."
"Rolling Wave" pointed out something that had nothing to do with the Second Amendment, and I pointed out it had nothing to do with the Second Amendment. As usual when you're involved, this is a "gotcha" that's missing the "gotcha" part.
That's how things have worked since 1803 when Marbury v. Madison was decided.
Kehoskie, are you pretending that's not what you're doing?
Not quite.
***
Why would I need to amend the Second Amendment of the Constitution? It's fine, as is.
Judicial review appears nowhere in Article III of the Constitution. Marshall simply said the court had that power.
What does the Second Amednment state--not what you think it means, but what does it read?
>shrug> How would you know? Apparently, you've never read it.
They did. Laws were passed in Louisiana in 1803 that banned black freedmen from owning weapons. Those racist laws were more prevalent after Turner's Rebellion.
There was no individual right to bear arms. Some individuals owned arms, but that doesn't mean there was an implicit right. Some people own pets, but there is no right to own pets.
This has been pointed out to you before, but you are resistant to facts.
Ah, we can't read judicial review into Article III, which says, among other things, that "the judicial power of the United States shall be vested in one Supreme Court... shall extend in all cases..." but we can ascertain from "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed" an absolute personal right to bear arms? Um hmm.
The Second Amendment is part of the Constitution and is, by definition, "constitutional."
I'm still waiting for you to respond to my questions.
Funny stuff, Shipman. Blacks weren't fully seen as people in 1803, so your example — just like the goofy Australian gun buyback example you kept posting day after day — doesn't tell us much.
***
I'm sure this makes for a fun debate at law schools, but the fact that such laws were enacted in zero percent of the country for generations after ratification tells us all we need to know about the late eighteenth- and early nineteenth-century understanding both of the Second Amendment specifically and of people's natural rights to resist tyranny and act in self-defense generally.
But, somehow, these non-humans in your mind had the right to attain their freedom through armed forces?
Can you ever be consistent for one moment?
The Founding Fathers were clear on the fact that "we the people" don't get our rights from the government. I know this concept is absolutely anathema to lefties, but it's plain as day in our founding document.
LOL. As I was just saying in #1240 ...
The idea that slaves needed government permission to resist their oppressors is something only a liberal could post with a straight face.
(And, by the way, my position couldn't be more "consistent" when it comes to rights.)
"GOD gave me my gold."
---John D. Rockefeller
"GOD gave me my Bushmaster."
---Joe Kehoskie
I prefer the oldie but goodie, "God made man, but Samuel Colt made them equal."
Nobody has ever argued that the Second Amendment is absolute. But the whole, "If we can ban private ownership of suitcase nukes, we can ban private ownership of Glocks and shotguns" is a winning argument only in the minds of lefties.
I'm still waiting.
(Who me? Where am I?) For you to read to me the text of the Second Amendment and tell me what you get from it? Try to keep up.
Nobody has ever argued...absolute?
C'mon, you're not ashamed to come out with something like that?
So, you concede it isn't an absolute right. How do we then interpret it? What do we use to find its meaning and application? What is the frigging constitutional right then?
Freedmen, not slaves. That's the whole point of an individual right to bear arms. If you can deny citizens the right to bear arms, then there is no individual right to gun ownership.
Why don't you re-read last month's thread and/or the earlier part of this thread and then let me know if anything remains unclear with regards to my position on the Second Amendment and/or one's natural right to act in self-defense? I've probably posted a hundred or more comments on guns since Newtown. I'd be happy to post another hundred, but only if we're covering new ground.
***
There really was no such thing as a "freedman" before the Civil War; before 1865, emancipated slaves were "Free Negroes," but they certainly weren't anything resembling full citizens of the U.S.
Follow the dialogue. Read to me the text of that amendment, then tell me what's left of the Second Amendment after what you've conceded, and why do you think that?
You shouldn't attempt to argue facts when you don't understand them.
Chickening out? I've put my name to hundreds of comments here re: guns. What's the point of having another 300-comment discussion when last month's 300-comment exchange still exists right here on the site? December's thread isn't very hard to find.
***
Emancipated slaves in 1803 America were considered full citizens? Who knew?
Yes, but look at this way. You can always change the channel. I hear Matlock's coming up.
What's the point of you making the same old empty bloviating assertions? Yet, you do.
Answer the questions.
Which limitations have I imposed? The Second Amendment doesn't contemplate private possession of suitcases nukes or anti-aircraft missiles, and to say so is to admit the obvious rather than to "impose a limitation."
What does it contemplate, O Folk Jurist. What does the Second Amendment mean and how do you know it?
The Second Amendment provides for people to "keep and bear" firearms in self-defense and to resist tyranny. I "know it" because people* in 100 percent of the post-ratification U.S. were legally allowed to keep and bear firearms, including old and/or disabled people (and women) who couldn't and wouldn't remotely have been considered members of a "collective rights" militia.
(* "People" sometimes, but not always, included blacks. The fact it didn't always include blacks doesn't render the overall point null and void.)
What does the Second Amendment state? How do you get an absolute right to "keep and bear" arms from that text, taking that text as a whole? Why would you read what it actually states to mean what you say? I mean, the NRA didn't for decades. Why didn't it state what you say if that's what it means? And if you are going outside the text to give meaning to only part of the words in the text, what about the other words? Why don't they matter?
And, then, why can't we do that with all the damn language in the Constitution? What counter-first-impression-plain-language-readings can we come up with?
As an aside: why do you think that the government's allowing people to keep and bear guns means that can't later disallow it (by statutory law) if the amendment is not absolute?
If it's not absolute, why does just your understanding of it matter more than someone else's reasoned interpretation?
If a "reasoned" interpretation could have yielded a gun ban, it seems likely that at least one gun ban would have been attempted or even implemented somewhere in the original 13 states. There wasn't unanimous agreement about much back then, so the fact that no such gun bans were passed probably tells us all we need to know about how the people of 1792 and 1800 America "interpreted" the Second Amendment. To the extent there was a debate about gun rights in 1792 America, it was akin to the debate in 2013 America about the Earth being round — i.e., there wasn't much of one.
There you go again, back to people only having rights as long as a benevolent government allows it. Crazy stuff.
And who has talked of banning all guns really? yet throughout those history, most states have had some laws that restrict how you can own those guns to some extend and unlike what some pro-gun folks seem to be imagining, it wasn't just guns, the first serious judicial debate on "concealed weapons" was on a sword cane it .. along with long dagger / dirks were banned from conceal carry in many places for a long time.
Meanwhile, for a long time also, most states have banned folks with criminal records from owning guns as well. which begs the question, which part of the Constitution says that folks after being released from their terms will have diminished rights?
my problem is the general logical inconsistency of the pro-gun argument. let's point this out.
A. right to self defense : the problem is, there are a pretty large number of non-gun owning countries out there that isn't exactly having huge murder rate and / or all their women and children being budged in and raped. in fact, a good number of them are considerably safer by most measurable stats, and those same places often happen to be countries that are most similar to the US in terms of GDP per capita and other rights.
B. in defense against tyranny : there are plenty of tyranny that banned guns and then fell internally, there are also tyranny that didn't ban guns, unlike what the Alex Jones of the world may rant on about. Mao actually didn't take away the guns, if anything it was the other way around, he kept giving away guns during the culture revolution ,which resulted in some of the most insane incidents of this insane period, such as one skrimish where two different factions leveled parts of a major city and the total casualty was over 1000. meanwhile, Hitler also didn't ban guns, except against the Jews, which as you noted previously, it was because they didn't see them as human, just as the south state didn't see blacks as human back then.
There is a logical argument and then there is a practical argument, those things are seperate, but note entirely, since at times illogical arguments are being used for or against practical arguments as well.
This is missing the "inconsistency" it purported to expose, although it might be hidden among all the straw men. But anyway, among other reasons, it's likely that some other countries are safer for reasons of culture, not because of the absence of firearms.
You tried this one before but the list of per capita gun ownership you presented was self-defeating. It's not a coincidence that some of the least-free nations on Earth — Cuba, North Korea, Iran — have little or no private ownership of firearms. (And the Hitler example was ludicrous. "Hitler didn't ban ownership of guns — just among the people he wanted to exterminate." Come on.)
Basically, there are two widely separated way that a government can remain standing. The first way is to be legitimate (and not tyrannical). The second is to be brutal. The governments that fall lie in between those two extremes.
The current state of affairs in every first-world country (including the U.S.) and in quite a few other countries is that a large enough majority of the people believe the government is legitimate so as to make insurrection exceedingly unlikely. (Of course the opinion that the current president/prime minister/whoever is a nincompoop whose policies are leading the country to ruination is always widespread, sometimes even in that leader's own party. But that's not the same thing at all.)
But if a ruler doesn't own that belief in legitimacy, then he has to be brutal. Most modern states command an apparatus of force - usually the military - that could utterly squash any dissent or opposition, provided those with the weapons are willing to be brutal. The governments that fall are the ones that are either unwilling or unable to be sufficiently brutal.
To put down the Tien An Men Square protests in 1989, the Chinese government found enough units of the army who were willing to be brutal. And of course they were the army - they had tanks and there was no standing against them.
In the 1991 Soviet coup against Gorbachev, the army was not willing to be brutal on behalf of the coup leaders, and the people standing around Yeltsin were not squashed. It isn't that the army didn't have the power - it's that they weren't willing to use it. And the armament, or lack thereof, of the people at the parliament building was not an issue.
Let's look at the Arab Spring.
In Tunisia, the general population was almost completely disarmed - but the uprising nonetheless toppled the long time leader. The army and police were not willing to be brutal on his behalf.
In Egypt, the general population has very few weapons, and the army is large and capable. But the army was not willing to be brutal, at least not on behalf of Mubarak. Actually the army was an independent actor, seeking to preserve its own position and willing to shed Mubarak to do so. Of course, the full story has not yet played out. But what would happen if the general population were better armed right now? That might result in more attacks by Muslim gangs directed at Coptic Christians. In other words, more arms might abet tyranny more than prevent it.
In Libya, the army wasn't very capable and wasn't very organized. A significant portion of that army was loyal to Gaddafi and willing to be brutal on his behalf - but that very brutality drove some others to defection. The result was civil war, with the primary source of armament for the rebels being the very army they were fighting against. That's the rule for rebellion - the better armed your adversary, the more weapons you stand to obtain. Some outside interference tipped the balance in the civil war, and Gaddafi fell. And absolutely none of this has anything to do with how well armed Libyan civilians were before the rebellion happened.
In Syria, Assad's government is well-armed and quite willing to be brutal. But they're also rooted in a religious and ethnic minority, and it's hard for that minority to be the whole army. There is a civil war now raging, with the outcome not yet clear (although it doesn't look good for Assad). As in Libya, the most important sources of armament for the rebellion are defections from, or thefts from, the Syrian army itself. (There are also some arms being brought in from outside.) By and large, this civil war is not being decided by who has semi-auto carbines; weapons a lot heavier than that are in play.
To believe that, one must believe it's a total coincidence that the populations of Cuba, Iran, and North Korea have been disarmed.
It's nice that some militaries were "not willing to be brutal" in the face of protests, but it's a foolish population that blindly assumes such restraint will be the norm.
Is has nothing to do with blind assumption, and it has nothing to do with what is the norm; in fact, brutality is all too common in the world. It's that how far the forces of order are willing to go determines the outcome. And the first to shoot at a cop or soldier is the first to die.
"How far the forces of order are willing to go" is often determined by how many guns are held by the opposition.
It's not hard to be a brutal dictator in a place where none of your opposition is armed.
The Catholic church has been very clear on the fact that beavers are fish. It doesn't make it so.
Did you make up these gems yourself or did you find them elsewhere?
So you're saying beavers are fish?
You can't really plagarize comebacks to weird statements. Someone arguing rights don't come from government is too rare and silly to distribute counterarguments. Why would you?
I think his examples lead to the conclusion that "It's not hard to be a brutal dictator in a place where you have the loyalty of a competent army". It does seem hard to be a brutal dictator in a place where very little of your opposition is armed but the powers of repression (ie. the Organized Army) isn't willing to be brutal for you. To bring it back to an earlier discussion this is where Gandhi and Mandela's tactics fit in. If you can, through non-violent resistance, seize the moral high ground and take away the willingness of the state's muscle (the Army) to implement its will then you've won.
Non-violent civil disobedience isn't always the answer, but in these cases it can be an extremely effective tool in taking the crucial weapon out of the oppressing government's hands. Where that's possible it's far, far more effective than arming individual citizens. Where it's not possible arming individual citizens might be a better option, but usually just in a "well we're probably all going to die here, but it's better than the status quo" kind of way.
It is interesting that you pose those examples, because I would say they argue the opposite. Take Iran. It is a classic example of a people's militia overthrowing a government, except in this case we don't care for the ideology of that militia, which leads us to downplay their role. The Basij, a volunteer paramilitary militia, open to all men and women 18 to 45 -- the very definition of a "well-regulated militia" -- is in fact one of the main pillars of the Iranian government. Its role in the Iran-Iraq war is analogous to the role of the colonial Militia in the Revolutionary War -- a major fighting force, with regular armed units as stiffener. The current size of the Basij is a matter of some dispute -- the Iranian government claims 13.5 million, independent observers much less -- but in any case, it numbers in the millions. But it's ideologically inconvenient for those arguing that an armed populace results in freedom and liberty.
The slogan "a country with 20 million youths must have 20 million riflemen or a military with 20 million soldiers; such a country will never be destroyed." was coined by that noted firearms enthusiast the Ayatollah Ruhollah Khomeini.
Why? Claiming something that didn't happen as support is pretty darn weak. Which is even assuming there were no bans in the first years of our country, which I don't know to be true.
Country (guns per 100 residents) World rank in 2007
North Korea (.6) 164
Cuba (4.8) 104
Iran (7.3) 79
Country (guns per 100 residents) World rank in 2007
Japan (.6) 164
India (4.2) 110
England and Wales (6.2) 88
Source
Cherry pick much Joe?
To be fair it's only that high because it includes the Welsh, which frankly nobody should.
EDIT: to clarify I actually have no idea if the Welsh own more guns than the English.
2nd EDIT: I actually think the Welsh should be included in more things! Wales is probably my 3rd favourite place in the world, most Welsh people I've met are awesome, and I even have some Welsh ancestry! But other than that I stand by my racial insult.
"Welsh people, what are they for?"
Oh it was a thing about 10 seconds after the news broke.
If Christ is going to hang he's going to take the whole lot of them with him.
And it couldn't happen to a nicer sport.
link
The Second Amendment was murky at the time of passage, and it's certainly murky over two hundred years later. It's not clearly written at all.
Think of how trivial it would be to write that same amendment with the same general words in a way that fairly clearly defined the right as individual ("The right of the people to bear arms shall not be infringed, especially since a well-regulated militia's is necessary to maintain a free state.") or in a way that clearly defined the right as solely collective/militia ("As a well-regulated militia is necessary to maintain a free state, the right of the people to bear arms in the service of such organizations shall not be infringed.")
I don't think the ambiguity was accidental or incompetent. It was political; an amendment that both sides could view as supporting their interpretation was necessary for ratification.
Doping in cycling is so prevalent and so pervasive that there is a single, simple test you can run from your home to decided if a rider is doping.
Did he win?
True, but a lot of people fail to understand what "well regulated" meant in the language of the writing.
That test has too many false negatives. I prefer the "Did he compete?", even though it might have false positives.
I wouldn't say that an armed populace results in freedom and liberty. I would say that an armed populace is a check on government power. Sometimes that will replace one government with an even worse one.
Your argument about brutality is definitely though-provoking, but I think an armed populace pushes the line of "what needs to be done to get things done" higher. That means that you need the support of the army for more brutal actions if you wish to repress an armed population than if you wish to repress an unarmed population. That's really the point. If the folks in Ruby Ridge don't have guns, the government just quietly strongarms a witness into testifying, and there's no noise to bring it to public attention. Those soldiers don't have engage in the moral calculation of "is this level of force justified" and can trample on the rights of the citizens without having to be particularly brutal.
Imagine an international epidemic, like a superflu. A government might want to quarantine infected people until they die, to prevent the spread of the disease. If there are no citizens with guns, this happens pretty easily; there's no way to effectively resist. If the citizens are armed, and every attempt to lock people in zones results in a brutal firefight, that may no longer be a viable option.
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