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1. catomi01 Posted: March 13, 2013 at 02:28 PM (#4387735)A few months ago, I might have thought that was the opening day lineup for the Scranton Wilkes-Barre Yankees.
So arbitration contracts aren't guaranteed?
He's not that great - ZiPS projects him at 0.3 WAR (92 OPS+, -5 FR) - a lot of waiver wire types are in that same neighborhood.
7: Not initially. There was an instance where a team released a guy right after losing their arb case, iirc (and paid 1/6th). In time, they'd be wholly guaranteed.
"Oh, and save ourselves two million dollars but, really, this is in Brennan's best interests."
They're not. If you tender an arbitration-eligible player a contract, and you cut him by March 15, you only have to pay 1/6 of his salary. If you cut him by March 29, you only pay 1/4 of his salary (I'm pretty sure those dates are correct, but don't hold me to them)
I realize that getting released now is better for Boesch than getting released three weeks from now, but I really wish that the guy who just fired the other guy would refrain from saying stuff like this.
Thanks. After March 29(ish), do they become guaranteed?
I'll bet a buck that you learned this after the news of Hochevar moving to the bullpen was announced - and much rejoicing ensued!
Ha, no, its an old rule. The Royals used it a few years ago for Jimmy Gobble. And yes, after March 29, they're fully guaranteed.
I first became aware of it when fast Brian Hunter was with the Ms. They took him to arb in a case they thought they'd easily win but he won and was gonna cost something like $1 M more than they thought he was worth (this was a while ago). They cut their losses which I didn't think they could do.
I'm a little surprised it's part of a standard arb-year contract structure I guess. I can easily see justification for it in the case of one that went to arbitration -- clearly the team and player disagree on worth and there's not necessarily any reason a team should have to hold to that full amount (not that the player gets to make the same choice). But this is a negotiated contract. Would I be correct in assuming that this clause can be negotiated away?
Hochevar to the pen? I'm stunned.
7(b)(2) of the Uniform Player’s Contract for failure to exhibit suffi-
cient skill or competitive ability
I recall a situation several years ago, when a grievance was filed by a player who was released in spring training after winning an unexpectedly high arbitration award. The player was hitting really well in the spring, and contended that the team had no performance reason to release him. I can't recall the player's name, but I recall that it involved the Padres. The grievance was later dropped, I think, because the player ended up signing an equivalent contract with another team.
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