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Posted: 17 October 2008 06:55 PM   [ Ignore ]

I’m confused about the relationship between FIP/DIPS ERA and BABIP.

Based on Fan Graphs, Dustin McGowan’s 2007 FIP ERA was below his real ERA, and his BABIP was below average. His FIP makes it seems like he was unlucky. His BABIP that he was slightly lucky.  Which one was he?

Posted: 18 October 2008 12:59 AM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 1 ]

Which one was he?

Can I choose neither?

BABIP measures balls put in play.
FIP measures balls not put in play (HR, K, BB, HBP, IBB).

It’s really tempting to try and view these as opposites, but really they aren’t realted at all. In short you can be lucky with regards to balls put in play, and unlucky with balls not put in play.

Inning 1: BB, BB, BB, HR, K, K, K
Inning 2: HR, BB, BB, BB, K, K, K

Both would produce the same FIP, but very different ERA’s. And neither is affected by balls put in play. Hope that makes things a bit clearer…

Posted: 20 October 2008 05:11 PM   [ Ignore ]   [ # 2 ]

Appreciate the input—I understand it much better now.